So my friend purchased a gram of cocaine from a friend of a friend, who of course was known as trustworthy (SWIM had never heard of the dealer before but trusted his friends').
Never having tried cocaine before, he hurried home to experience what he hoped to be clean, fun energetic euphoria.
First off he weighed it, it was 0.6g.
A little miffed about the amount but what can you expect from a dealer?
Anticipation quickly took over-ruled the bad sale and he layed out a decent sized line (his only reference being from movies

) and proceeded to roll up his bank note and swiftly insufflate the supposed cocaine.
He waited 5 minutes, no effects noted. Powdered residue was present on finger tips, and going by previous teachings decided to rub some on his gums.
After 10 minutes and feeling nothing but a slight body relaxation (??) and a slightly sore nostril, he did 2 bigger, fatter lines.
Inhaled sharply to insure it didn't get trapped in nasal hair or anything of the sort. This time he noted a taste, a familiar taste. Ritalin, it tasted exactly (or very close to, it has been a while since my guitar insufflated Ritalin (Novartis brand if that makes any difference to anything) but my stratocaster has still to feel any effects different than prescription Ritalin, odd queezy feeling in stomach and slightly more talkative.
What makes my Hendrix poster question the possibility of it being Ritalin is it's very rare to come across here (although admittedly my keyboard types that it hasn't had very much experience in cocaine, but some in Ritalin) but generally, Ritalin isn't prescribed very much in these clouds I live in.
However, I am aware that Cocaine and Ritalin act in similar ways, perhaps on the same receptors in the brain to produce similar results, so perhaps my iPod is just a little paranoid about being ripped off. But would Coke and Ritalin have similar tastes my pocket mirror and razorblade asks?
The last concern I have is that my good friend Miss Self usually feels physically lethargic on Ritalin (oral or insuflated) and this again seems to be the case. Perhaps he has a physical calming effect with CNS stimulants (he is ADD/ADHD afterall).
Would there be any easy way to determine the difference?
Thanks for your time