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Old 02-02-2008, 08:51
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The memory's memory effect

Swim has come to know the effects of many substances through trial and error and has realized that since he started doing cocaine, all his other highs from substances he previously enjoyed immensely are just not what they used to be. Regardless; for example; how much he lets his tolerance to codeine drop he never achieves that total euphoria anymore. Sure he could move on to oxies but he was always content with codeine and for a good 7 years it had done it for him every time. This was due in part to never getting carried away with his codeine habit and never developing a major tolerance. Anyways what i'm getting at is that swim mentions he felt his brain now only let's that strong euphoria develop from cocaine. So he is throwing out this question:

does swiy have any similar experiences where one substance seems to have taken over in such a way that if one were to say lose a sense, like smell then surely other senses would be heightened, but only the opposite. Where one sense (in this case set of receptors) has now been lessened due to the heightened activity in other areas to the point where it cannot get the same effects again? In a sense what i'm getting at here is once a more addictive or potently acting has entered does our brain keep that heightened feeling in it's memory banks and as a new substance enters does the possible effect of previous ones automatically ceiling earlier?

and if anyone knows exactly what i'm getting at but thinks they can word it better then please do.. heh

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